Apparently, neither can you.
Apparently, you misunderstand what laying out an
argument using
logic actually consists of. Or what is involved in using logic to
refute another's argument.
You've announced that I'm "incorrect all the way around" - all without bothering to really elaborate or make a case for
HOW that is so (otherwise known as the "we say so" phenomena) ...
Now, see if you can address any - or each - individual point in what I have said, and tell us all - using logic -
HOW that is so (that I am "incorrect all the way around" ...)
You've made unsupported and probably unproveable statements that may or may not be true
My statement as to what the consensus definition is, as far as what the nature and definition of homosexuality is at it's most basic and fundamental level, is easily provable ... just pick up any good dictionary and look up the definition:
Homosexuality - noun:
sexual desire or behavior directed toward a person or persons of one's own sex.
Homosexuality | Define Homosexuality at Dictionary.com
Beyond that, it is further verifiable - just by looking at the preponderance of medical/psychological/psychiatric literature.
I think you will also find that there is a broad consensus that the use of force in order to dominate and subjugate in regards to sexual assault and rape is a widely observed phenomena.
Further, it is easily provable that both rape and
sexual assault involve
sex ... ahh ... I think that's
why it's called
sexual assault ...
Rape - noun:
1. the unlawful compelling of a person through physical force or duress to have sexual intercourse.
2. any act of sexual intercourse that is forced upon a person. ...
verb:
6. to force to have sexual intercourse. ...
9. to commit rape.
Rape | Define Rape at Dictionary.com
Sexual assault - noun:
a statutory offense that provides that it is a crime to knowingly cause another person to engage in an unwanted sexual act by force or threat; "most states have replaced the common law definition of rape with statutes defining sexual assault"
Sexual assault | Define Sexual assault at Dictionary.com
and don't necessarily support your hypothesis or rule out mine.
Sadly, no ...
Scripture & logic are a fine combination.
Until one
interprets scripture in such a way that it disagrees with logic and observable phenomena.
But logic is a human construct
Logic exists as a
natural phenomena ... the only thing human about it, is the observation and use of it.
2 + 2 = 4 and 2 + 2 ≠ 5 ... whether someone observes or uses it ... or not.
Accordingly, someone who is a believer might say, that logic is not so much human, as it is the Supreme Being's handiwork.
and scripture never fails.
Is largely irrelevant to the question at hand.
However, one might say that one thing is certain and easily observable: Human
understanding of scripture does fail ... and some might even say
quite often ...
I would assume that that is not a premise that even you would dispute.
Scripture tells us homosexual perversion is a sin, therefore it is.
Nothing in what I said necessary precludes that - and what I said doesn't even address it. It doesn't need to.
The disagreement was over what constitutes homosexuality. I say that, at its most basic and fundamental level, it is a desire, an inclination, a preference ...
You say it is strictly an act.
I'm perfectly willingly to acknowledge that the act is a manifestation of it - but I can't allow that the act is the
entirety of it - because to do so would fly directly in the face of what is
observable, and would involve the
denial of observed phenomena.
It seems you are ignoring, and are apparently unwilling to acknowledge, the basic
cause of the later
effect or
consequence:
desire, inclination, preference (cause) ----> act (effect)
You're misreading the statement: a simple statement of a
principle - which mentions no particular individual - does not imply that it applies to any individual particularly, other than the ones it defines or mentions generally.