I deleted the link because it wouldn't paste properly. That is the only reason.
Use the link tool (looks like a world globe with two chain links) instead of pasting it (directly into the reply box)
LOL ... then what happened to that yes or no answer to the question I previously posed ?
And why are your trying to obfuscate the issue that I raised by focusing on irrelevancies ?
Oh ...
wait:
I identified that your hypothetical involved a violent crime and a victim of a violent crime. The OP did not. Different circumstances, and it does matter with regards to punishment.
It may be relevant to what specific punishment is meted out ... but it isn't necessarily relevant to whether or not one is punished ...
IOW: it's irrelevant to whether or not (later) being the victim of a crime somehow absolves one of being punished for crimes one has
previously committed ... that is my
point.
A point which you still have deflected on and avoided answering a direct question on.
It's kinda similar to how some are avoiding answering a question I posed elsewhere on the question of the rule of law.
Folks won't touch that one because they can't - they're either faced with 1. undercutting their own argument, or 2. showing themselves to be hypocrites (Yeah ... I'm all for the rule of law ...
except when I want to violate it of course ...)
I'll give you a hypothetical and tell me if both crimes will be handled the same way in this country. A drunk driver is pulled over by police. They decide to beat the driver because his is mouthing off. The second drunk driver,before he is pulled over, mows down a person that is walking. The driver is then beaten the same way. Are they handled the same?
Under the law ... no, course not - at least in term what crimes the (drunken) perps would be charged with - but it's irrelevant to the point I was making.
As I said before, the point - which you are clearly avoiding by not addressing the question that illustrates the principle: one does not escape being answerable under the law for crimes they have
previously committed simply because one
later becomes a victim of someone else's criminal activity.
Is there even punishment for the first driver?
Depends ... probably largely on the specific jurisdiction, and who's involved.
In some instances I'm sure there is.
Once again, the issue I raised is not about a particular, specific punishment - it's about whether or not being a victim of a crime somehow absolves one of being punished for crimes one has
previously committed.
It's really not a terribly difficult proposition to understand.